jul
Junior Member
Posts: 80
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Post by jul on Mar 6, 2004 2:34:30 GMT -5
Well i do have a dumb question (again) I have a question about these percent thingy in populations, to prove that they *mixed*
(this is just a random example) In fact it prove it very less do it? I mean if in real life someone tell you his ancestor is asian or negroid or whatever and you would ask...oh well, do you do a test? how much is it?And he/she answered well i do have 1,5% mongoloid/negroid in me you would proberly laugh your ass of when he says he is mixed. so i wonder why these percents got more importent in relation of a group. Do it means that a number of these group are actually more *mixed* (have a higher percentage) but the median of the group has a lack of this DNA? Then i would understand why the result is that some individual look mixed and some dont. I still have a problem relate the Genetic results with the real outcome. (i mean who someone looks like) I really hope someone can help me with that. Thanks
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