Baladi
Junior Member
Posts: 63
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Post by Baladi on Jul 12, 2005 11:49:42 GMT -5
Can you cite references on this. How do we know what pre-dyanstic Egyptians spoke? There is no breakage of culturle from the Badarian to Naqada phase. Some archaeologist in the past thought that Naqada II were migrating people from Mesopotamia but this has been debunked.
Because of the findings of Abydos in Upper Egypt.
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Post by Mike the Jedi on Jul 12, 2005 12:57:35 GMT -5
I said maybe. In other words, it's much more likely they spoke a Meroitic language rather than a Nilo-Saharan one by mere virtue of geography.
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Baladi
Junior Member
Posts: 63
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Post by Baladi on Jul 12, 2005 13:41:26 GMT -5
Meroitic language is still undeciphered. This dates to a latter time period. Saying pre-dyanstic Egypt was a Meroitic language is like saying Old,Middle and New Kingdom languages are Coptic. Languages change and later after certain periods of time.
Just for the record there is no break in terms of crania from the Badarian down to the Naqada era;thus there is no need to postulate displacement.
The earliest area of ageritculture in the Nile Valley was the Fayoum Neolithic dated to around 7500 B.C. Then you get the Merimede Ben-Salama and Omari cultures within the sphere of Lower Egypt.
There was gradual assimilation of Delta elements in Upper Egypt but it was closer to the Dyanstic period when royalthy from Upper Egypt and Lower Egypt began to intermingle.
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Post by topdog on Jul 12, 2005 13:46:11 GMT -5
Care for an explanation Igu? I don’t really get it. BTW I don’t think they speak Afro-Asiatic in Uganda, Kenya or south Sudan. The obvious senario is that Afrasian was introduced from the middle east, not nubia as CongoCentrists claim. Also, people claim that badarians (who spoke a nilo-saharan language) were the producers of the Egyptian civilization of Afro-Asiatic language. As for the big mistakes in my depictation, I said not to look at the details ;D There isn't anything obvious about where Afrasian languages came from, Afrasian languages are found at their highest diversity in Africa, I know you would like to believe that outsiders brought these languages in and left one outside of Africa. Let it be known there is no evidence from archaeology that Middle Easterners migrated in. The proof simply doesn't exist.
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Post by Crimson Guard on Jul 12, 2005 15:18:33 GMT -5
<<The proof simply doesn't exist. >>
Yes,for YOU!
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Post by topdog on Jul 12, 2005 15:29:44 GMT -5
<<The proof simply doesn't exist. >> Yes,for YOU! Where is the proof? Quit talking and show me the money!
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Post by Crimson Guard on Jul 12, 2005 15:59:44 GMT -5
Calm down movieline Dog!
The many names of Afro-Bass! ;D You should be banned already!
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Post by Ponto Hardbottle on Jul 13, 2005 1:53:53 GMT -5
The whole language argument is specious. It is based on accepting Greenberg's language theories. I don't. The whole affinity of Semitic languages with other language groups depends more on the coincidence of nearby proximity. Latvian is an IE language affected by Uralic language. Welsh is a Brythonic language affected by Germanic English. Breton is a Brythonic language affected by Romance French. I accept Omotic and Chadic are African languages but their connection with Semitic I don't. Chadic has had contact with Berber and later Semitic Arabic. Egyptian is basically dead. The argument is specious for Semitic originating in Africa as it depends on the diversity of the language group in Africa. Semitic languages in Asia have been consolidating and changed by conquest or cultural influence. Think about the Levantine area: Aramaic, Hebrew, Phoenician, Hittite, Greek, Latin, Arabic, French and English. What is the correspondent history of the Ethiopian highlands? Mountains and valleys breed many different languages. Papua New Guinea has many languages for its population and geographic size. It is mountainous and there are people who had no contact with another other people until the arrival of Europeans. Take the Levantine and Arabia - it is mostly flat and open. Today English is spoken around the world but most native speakers are in the Americas, the USA and Canada. There are more varieties of English in America than in the whole of England. American Englishes are more diverse and plentiful than European English. Now does that make the genesis of English, American? Of course not because you know the history of English and the history of America. The idea that the number of Semitic languages in Africa compared to Asia can be explained other than jumping to conclusions.
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