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Post by bigalspal on Nov 28, 2005 21:00:21 GMT -5
Hello, My paternal YDNA has been SNP'd M172+ (J2) My mtDNA is U5b. I am a female.
I have typical US southern genealogy. My family on both sides have been in the US since colonial times. I have oneg, RH neg blood type. My question is: Can it be determined on wich side did I get my blood type from? Mother or father? Do the people belonging to my paternal J2 haplogroup have this blood type? Thanks, bigalspal
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Post by asdf on Nov 28, 2005 22:28:32 GMT -5
You get an allele from each of your parents for ABO bloodtype. The first two are co-dominant. The last is recessive, so these are the possibilities: Genotype | Phenotype | AB | AB | Ao | A | Bo | B | oo | O |
So because you're recessive O, you had to have gotten an o from each of your parents. If you'd have gotten an A or a B from your parent's, the O would not have been expressed from the other, so you got your phenotype from both parents. In Rh, + is dominant over -, so your genotype is -- and your phenotype is -, but your parents' phenotypes might be +- and +--, -- and --, or +- and --. As for J2 haplogroup--that originated in the northern Fertile Crescent, where most of Jewish, Syrian, Lebanese, etc, genes hailed from. Neolithic farmers from the Middle-East, however, introduced this haplogroup to Britain, Sweden, etc.
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Post by bigalspal on Nov 29, 2005 6:10:21 GMT -5
Hi Will, Thanks for your reply. I understand now how I became 0-RH-. I guess I thought it might have come with the unusual J2 haplogroup. J2 is unusual for my paternal DNA & genealogy. I have come to the conclusion that it's from Neolithic expansion into the UK. It seem not to be more recent than that. I've been reading the different posts for Neolithic expansion into the UK. Experts have concluded that it did not leave much of a genetic figerprint there. So, does that mean that my line is more ancient than the R1b population in the UK? I have been testing additional markers & have 11 at 461 & 462. I've been told that excludes Balkan ancestry. Here are my 25 marker DYS values: 393=12, 390=23, 19=15, 391=9, 385=13-16, 426=11, 388=14, 439=11, 389-1=12, 392=11, 389-2=28, 458-15, 459a=9, 459b=9, 455=11, 454=11, 447=27, 437=16, 448=19, 449=31, 464a**=14,464b**=14, 464c**=16 Of course, this is my father's paternal YDNA. It seems that people with J2 markers did not mix with the R1b's & I's of the UK. Am I correct in assuming that? I realize that this is "deep" ancestry, but I fully expected to be I or R1b, so I'm still trying to wrap my mind around this. Some people have surmised that my paternal J2 came to the UK via the Romans. While, that is a romantic (pun intended) notion, I have no proof. It was really hard to grasp until J1 & J2 was divided into different subgroups. Until then, I had to wonder if I had grandparents who might be Jewish. But, with no genealogy pointing in that direction, it seems pretty unlikely. Any thoughts?? I'm waiting for J2 subclade tests to become available from FTDNA. They tell me it might be as early as Jan. 2006. Thanks so much, Cindy
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