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Post by oguzarslan on Aug 9, 2006 8:14:45 GMT -5
Why in mcculloghs estimates there is no keltic nordic race at France.Because netherland belgium switzerland and britain have strong keltic nordic populations and France is neighbour to all of these countries???
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Post by asdf on Aug 11, 2006 22:16:52 GMT -5
Simply: because he generally had no scientific or anthropological basis for anything he wrote. He was as credible as a random internet poster.
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Post by oguzarslan on Aug 14, 2006 12:17:36 GMT -5
Ýn fact how do you find Carleton Coon as a scientist, many people joins his observations and ideas here??.Do you believe about his Keltic nordic race(as anglo saxon) that these two races was invented by him and these races was just talked by Coon.
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Post by Wetterkjelt on Aug 31, 2006 14:29:21 GMT -5
Most people speak about phenotype and genotype nowadays.
The word race or breed is somewhat difficult when using it on mankind, since their are clear racial differences but no clear racial borders.
Oh and McCullogh is a romanticizing fool, the Netherlands are in no way 50% Keltic-Nordid, or the 10% Anglo-Saxon which should be concentrated in Frisia is also romanticized.
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